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Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> Irodov -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
6 replies   
Thanks edison
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> electricity -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
4 replies   
Either you haven't typed the time or the charge is given as charge per unit time. Please check.
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> dynamics -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
3 replies   
Please specify the question clearly. What is theta???
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> projectile motion... -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
4 replies   
For uniformly accelerated motion
vav =  (1/2)(v + v0)
The acceleration is uniform here too
a = -g j
v0 = v0(cos
i + sin j)
At highest point,
v = v0cos i
vav =  (1/2)(v + v0) = (1/2)(v0cos i + sin j + v0cos i)
     =
(1/2)(2v0cos i +v0 sin j )
Magnitude of average velocity
vav  = (1/2[ (4v02cos2 + v02sin2 )] = (1/2)[ (4v02cos2 + v02 - v02cos2 )]
     = (v0/2)[ (3cos2 + 1)]
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> rotation problem -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
3 replies   
Consider a particle on the rim whose radius from the centre makes an acute angle of with the vertical.
Such a point has two velocities: v horizontally due to translation and R at a tangent due to rotation. As the case is of pure rolling, v = R. Hence the net velocity of the particle is the vector sum of v velocity horizontal and a velocity v along the tangent. You can see by drawing the figure that the angle between these two velocities is .
Hence the magnitude of velocity of the particle is
u = (v2 + v2 + 2 v v cos) = 2v sin(/2)
The magnitude of velocity is the speed, whose integral wrt time gives distance covered.
s = 0T u dt = 0T 2v sin(/2) dt
where T is the time for one complete rotation.
Now = t d = dt
s = 02 pi  2v sin(/2) / d = 2R02 pisin(/2)d = 8R
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> Irodov -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]
6 replies   
1) The field should be gravitational.
Taking the conventional directions of XY axes, the point of projection to be the origin, and the time instant of projection to be t = 0,
v1 = v1 i where v1 = 3m/s
v2 = -v2 i where v2 = 4m/s
a = -g j
v1(t) = v1 + at = v1 i -gtj
v2(t) = v1 + at = -v2 i -gtj
Let at time instant T their velocity vectors become perpendicular
v1(T).v2(T) = 0
-v1 v2 + (gT)2 = 0
T = (v1 v2) / g

At any instant t the position vectors of the particles are
 r1(t) = v1t+ (1/2)at2 = v1t i -(1/2)gt2j
r2(t) = v2t+ (1/2)at2 = -v2t i -(1/2)gt2j
Instantaneous separation between the two particles
d(t) = |r1(t) - r2(t)| = (v1 + v2)t
At the time T,
d(T) = (v1 + v2)T = (v1 + v2) (v1 v2) / g
Substitute the numerical values to get the answer.
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> Irodov -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]
6 replies   
2)
As the particles move with constant velocities their position vectors are
r1(t) =  r1 + v1t
r2(t) =  r2 + v2t
At the instant of collision, say at t = T,
r1(T) = r2(T)
r1 + v1T = r2 + v2T
r1 - r2 = (v2 - v1)T
Hence r1 - r2 and (v2 - v1) are parallel vectors. As they are parallel vectors, unit vectors along them must be same.
Hence,
r1 - r2/|r1 - r2| = (v2 - v1)/|(v2 - v1)|

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> friction... urgent help required -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
16 replies   
The external force is mgsin30. Now, the role of friction is to prevent the slipping of the block. Friction can go upto a value of mgcos30. Now if mgsin30 is less than this max value, why should friction apply its max strength. It will apply a value equal to mgsin30
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> velocity -> Go to message
This Post 7 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 2 votes )   [?]
9 replies   
As we know for constant acceleration a,
x = v0(t) + (1/2)a(t)2 x /t= v0 + (1/2)a(t)vav = = v0 + (1/2)a(t)
v = a(t)t = v/a
Substituting the value of t in the second term of the first equation
vav =  v0 + (1/2)a(v/a) = v0 + (1/2)(v - v0)
vav =  (1/2)(v + v0)
As can be seen this result is derived from the results for constant acceleration.
It isn't applicable to non uniform accelerations.
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> S.H.M. -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
7 replies   
Very crisp and clear solution edison
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> physics integration problem -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]
4 replies   
F = x3-3x
m(dv/dt) = x3-3x
m(dv/dx)(dx/dt) = x3-3x
mv(dv/dx) = x3-3x
m0V vdv = 13 (x3-3x)dx
(1/2)V2 = 8
V2 = 16
V = 4 m/s

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> Plz solve me this -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
5 replies   
Thanx bipin
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> Vectors -> Go to message
This Post 12 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 3 votes )   [?]
4 replies   
You can geometrically find the anticlockwise angles the sides of the hexagon make with the +X axis. They are 0, /3, 2/3, ( = 3/3), 4/3, 5/3
Suppose the length of the hexagon side be L.
Then the X components are
L = L cos0
L cos/3
L cos2/3
-L = L cos = L cos3/3
L cos4/3
Lcos5/3
The vectors A1, A2, ...A6 form a closed hexagon and hence their resultant is zero.
Then the X component of their resultant must also be zero. The X component of the resultant is the sum of the X components of the individual vectors. Hence
L cos0 + L cos/3 + L cos2/3 + L cos3/3 + L cos4/3 + Lcos5/3 = 0
cos0 + cos/3 + cos2/3 + cos3/3 + cos4/3 + cos5/3 = 0

Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> force -> Go to message
This Post 5 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 1 votes )   [?]
12 replies   
Consider this problem
A rope of mass m and length L has 2 forces F1 and F2 applied at its end points.. find the expression for tension at any point in the rope.
Here is the solution to this problem
consider a length x of the rope from the end where F2 is acting. Let the tension at the other end be T.
Mass of this portion of the rope = (m/L)x
Acceleration of the rope = (F1 - F2)/m
So
T - F2  =[ (m/L)x] [(F1 - F2)/m]
T = F2 +[(F1 - F2)/L]x
At x = L/2
T = (F1 + F2)/2
Hence the tension at the midpoint is
T = (100 + 70)/2 = 85 N
Catalogs Discussion Forums -> Mechanics -> maths -> Go to message
This Post 0 points    (Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 0 votes )   [?]
3 replies   
See, differentiability at a point means the existence of a unique tangent at that point.
As an example consider the graph of y = |x|
There is no unique tangent at x = 0.
Hence the function y = |x| is non differentiable at x = 0
 
 
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