Messages posted by Abishay Rao

do the brackets signify greatest integer function???

if not, the answer is -1.....datz wat i m getting.....pls tell da answer!

@ sreeee

i have solved the problem myself and then just to prove that my answer is right i have put up the graph....if u can't answer questions then atleast appreciate others who are here to help brothers in need....i hope i have made it clear!!

i feeel the answer is 1...am i anyway right???

all i can say is dat no real solutions exists for this equation....i did try a hell a lot of stuff...but nothing seems to work.....please check the question n the answer given...if the question is right....no solutions exist....

**(edit)**

all i can do is post a graph for this because i am not able to make out the question clearly....

yes the funcn 1/x is continuous....we never check continuity for some value which is not really lying in the domain....if we start checking continuity for values outside the domain we can prove that almost all well known funcns are discontinuous whereas they are truly continuous through out ther domain....i hope it is clear!!!

sorry! started the topic accidentally! i apologise for it

is the answer!

the confusion that people might have is about the mod sign in there....here is an exp.

we make two possible cases:->

1)

or

2)

therefore both cases turn out to be one and the same.....and as we knows that sinx/x<1 when x tends to 0

[sinx/x]=0

work done by friction force implies that we are talking about the product of the opposing force exerted on the body by the surface and the displacement of the body

but when the surface does not exert any opposing force on the body....we say in technical terms that work done by the friction force is zero

is it clear?

f(x)=f(-x) means that it is an even function......f''(x) will be only one point and therfore only one pt of maxima....

but is slightly leeser than 1 when x tends to 0....

therefore...

is what we have

and cos(something greater than 0) < 1

therefore we assume that both values turn out to be almost same and tanx/x=1

therefore [tanx/x]=[1]=1

so the answer is 1!!!

good question....

according to me.....the two are same in some cases

for eg:- both are same in

but it is not same for a few higher degree functions....

for eg:- it is different in

because here :-> is some positive value close to zero but is a negative value

therefore the LH limit and the RH limit are different

i hope i have made it clear n my logic is right.....

i din't understand your question....as far as i m able to make out you are asking the following question

FIND:->

then the answer is :->

is my answer right?????

is it correct????

the graph is as follows....

therefore the answer is infinity for both max and min.....

the answer is 0

tell me if its right n i will post my soln...

DOMAIN :-> (-1,1)

RANGE :-> [0,1]

CONTINUITY :-> CONTINUOUS THROUGHOUT ITZ DOMAIN

DIFFERENTIABILITY :-> DIFFERENTIABLE EXCEPT x =0

graph is as follows....

if x,y,z>0

& (x)(y)(z)=32

then if we assume y=32

we can have x=1/(big value) & z=(big value)

it satisfies x,y,z>0 & xyz=32

because in xyz=32

LHS= =32

RHS=32

therefore LHS=RHS

so max. val. of x+2y+z=1/(big value)+2(32)+(big value)=1/infinity+64+infinity=infinity

therefore the max value of x+2y+z=infinity

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