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 saurabh panda's messages in the community 1 2 3 ... 15 16 17 GO Go to Page...
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 Discussion Forums -> This Post 2 points    (0    in 1 votes )   [?]

cant say so easily...

y dont u juss calculate... problem is tha whn there is an additional force opposing motion distance travelled in two cases is different.... and while going up and coming down acceleraton of body changes in case of air resistance... a is acc due to friction by air

like let initial vel =u

final vel=0.. acc =g => time taken = u/g...

total time = 2u/g

now

2nd case: whle going up ... 0=u-(g+a)t  => t= u/(g+a)

and 0= u^2 -2(g+a)s =>s=u^2/2(g+a)

now while going down

s is same.... but acceleration is g-a

=> s= 1/2 (g-a)t^2...(putting value of s)

=> t^2 =u^2/(g+a)(g-a)... => t= root of u^2/(g+a)(g-a)...

now total time=

u/g+a +u/root(g+a)(g-a).... =/= 2u/g

we thus have conditions depending upon magnitude of a....

cheers!!! :)

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 2 points    (0    in 1 votes )   [?]

lol all of them ud survive...

simply bcos all are moving with same speed and are not accelerated.. in sense of speed....

(moving in same circle)

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

absolutely rit dude....

magnetic field is directed frm north to south everywhre outside the magnet...

but is alws directed frm south  to north inside it....

thus assrtion is rit and reasn wrng

hope this helps...

Cheers!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

oh ok....

thn must be some mistake in printing..

forget that naa... it seems its not a big mistake...

but i hve a bigger prob...

how is it not gven that it is critical vel....  u sure of quest.?

cud u get it clarified.. cos i m damn sure Reynolds no is constant for a fluid....

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

yes ans in that way comes 120 for sure...

bcos we hve ..

V= 0.06 m/sec

diametre = 0.02 m

and rho = 1000 kg/ m^3

and n = 0.01...

putting values we get 120....

but m still unsure.. cos i know well that R is a constant for a liquid and not variale and it is only possible to calc if V here is critical vel...

Cheers!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

the velocity given must be critical vel ....

as we hve formula.. Vc = R (n/ rho D)

Vc= critical vel (max vel. fluid can have streamlined flow) , R= reynolds no., n= coef. of viscocity, D = 2r = diametr, and rho = density = 1 almost....

but i wonder why it isnt gven anythng abt critical vel.....

ANYWAYZ  this is the formula....

hope it helps...

Cheers!!!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

well wat i thnk is almost as same as ultimtor but little different......

this certainly is not internal force... applying breaks is definitely an external force....

whn we apply breaks a torque is provided on the wheels... this torque causes an angular deceleration.. causing te angular velocity to decrease..... now it may b sudden or rapid..... if greater trque.. thn a sudden decrease in w is caused ( practically this case is more valid) ... and the thng v=rw is certainly not satisfied causing the car to slip..... thus friction changes frm rolling to sliding.... and we all know sliding frction > rolling friction...

so

car ud stop.... i mean decelerate

and y it is external ( refernce frame is car rit)

see ... yes whn a brake is applied to the car's wheels equal and opp reaction ocurs on the car thats true... par see this force ud hve been internal if the car ud be flying in vvacume or somethng that kinda situation

the force exrted by breaks on car is being desipated by some other means to external system.... i mean...

if the torque is clock wise ( trque on the car due to breaks......)

then a normal force on car is exrted which is external... and dis break derives its power frm that normal force or somethng of that kind......i hope u undrstand.. kaise samjhaoon..

bas realise ki how the force is not internal...... it is being supported by the external... i mean they are the cause.....

CHEERS!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

hehe........

rit

spidey is absolutely rit..........

speaking truely ..... this is a vague post......... first get into somethng and thn coment on other.......

bits, iit, and nit........ all r gud.........

atleast they guarantee u a job in future.. secured one....... whn u will see the struggle naa in lyf....... thn u will remember ki oh wat a coment i had made abt the colleges......( hope that time never comes for u)

but ......... wat we shud remember ki........ yaar if u qualify iit wid 1000 odd rank or bits wid 300 odd... this DOESNT MEAN U ARE GURANTEED A BETTR FUTURE WID HIGHER SALARY, RECOGNTION !!!!!!!

iit main bhi back benchers hote hain....... remember that... everywhre there r back benchers.......no matter how gud the inst. is?....

wat i mean to say is even if u qualify wid gud marks u will hve to doubly wrk hard to leave upto ur expectations...

aur ek baat........ everyone is underestimating MSc and research line......... y?

reseach is pure science........ guarantees recognition, respect and also job satisfaction...... only thng is money..... bhai that is soon going to b over in 2-3 yrs...... our research foundation is fast developing... and a gud student can incurr as much as any engineer..... besides .. the name and fame and respect u get is just wat everyone wants rather than bulk of stupid money (dont need so much that u dun hve time to enjoy the money as it happens mainly wid midiocare engineers)!!!!

no need of discussing these.... MBA will still be a prefrnce for everyone no matter how gud or bad college u get in...... so first get in somewhre gud...thn see how best u can enlighten ur future career.......

Cheers!!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 5 points    (1    in 1 votes )   [?]

well the solid sphere is not a conductor ........

and if a conductor charges udnt hve aligned inside it

they ud only exist at surface. so the ans is ritly uniform electric field thru out........

and the derivation of it can be done using superposition principle ....

CHEERS!!!!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 5 points    (1    in 1 votes )   [?]

guyz and gals.......

are all da exams over

??

wait for all the results to be out ... thn see..........

ways will come out... experts may help

Cheers!!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

well gaurav

this methd is gud par its i thnk will be gud for objective exams.......

i dunno know whether its gud subj ans......

hmm....... is der any other way of solving this???

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

@blade x or watever it is........

well wat do u consider urself.......

rates pe jaata hai........ sharam nahin aayi.......... tujhe ....

wat nonsense are u typing.......... well are frm this wrld? ......... dun thnk so............

bohat dum hai na tujhme

wat do u thnk of urself............

ek do quest......... i hve seen of urs.......... very utpatang quest .... more importantly useless and crap..........

i dun hve any objection in dat ... we all hve rit to post quest....similarly we all hve rits to post our views on quest..

watevr it may b....

par tujhe ... who gave u the rit to tell someone lik that.......... bohT HIMMAT  aaa gayi hai na ....huh

whu gave u those rates even .......... u shudnt have got one also.........

ur sentences invite a fight............. u hve alws been lik that.........

u seem to be just a bigger fool in da long race.......

no one shud help u.........

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 5 points    (1    in 1 votes )   [?]

thisis really a vague question if we take angle of incidence to be too large.......

we hv to assume that light is almost perp..... incident

bas thn do it .......

use this R theta= 2 cm....... as its very small disp... as we use in cirlce... s= r theta

R= 100 cm

thn find theta....... it is 0.02.......

now whn mirror is rotate dby alpha image is rotated by 2 alpha

so mirror was rotated by theta/ 2 = alpha = 0.01

cheers!!!!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 2 points    (0    in 1 votes )   [?]

yeah rit.......

and remembr 1 more thg to see a complete image himself h b4 a mirror one needs to hve a mirror of height h/2

this is derived as tarin did........

Cheers!!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

hmm rit .....

par if u see we hve 2  N ....

toh if one is invoved in resonance ... other is free to donate........

Cheers!!!!!!!11

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

yes rit simply see that N has lone pair and its not being use din resonance.....

HHE......

Cheers!!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

hmm....... wat i can tell..... wat i know..

alkalides are ions......

lik H- for hydride ........ Na- , and K- ... most importantly Li-( lithides) for alkalides.......

and now u can easily kno wwhy they are dimagnetic...

one thng .. if i udnt hve seen da ans..... hehe i ud surely hve wrote somethng related to organic.. lik ch3_..

hehe....... thnx for da ans........

--ides..are for -ve ions of electro+ve elements mainly ... i guess.......

lik LiH lithium hydride ........ similarly....... if Li has negative thn .... inverse of lithium hydride is da compound..

Cheers!!!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

well how cum this be true if we have identical material in both and in identical conditions......

shud be impossible

yes its true that hot water will cool at a much fastyer rate than the other par will not be cooled quicker than the other

logically thnking .... the hot water has at some point to pass thru the same state as the other one for sure... so after that it will undergo same thng that the other one does... so this is not possible

dun know if some higher theory is involved....

Cheers!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

well diamond is crystalline na....

and 2 types of diamond??????

wats that???

diamond , graphite are crystalline allotropes of graphite...

isotrope means u hve same properties in different directions... and as crystalline structures have definite pattern in diffrnt directions they are anisotropic...

bas thats y i feel diamond shud hve anisotropic nature

Cheers!!!!!

 Discussion Forums -> This Post 0 points    (0    in 0 votes )   [?]

i believe crystalline structures are anisotropic ....

they hve diff properties in differentdirections.....

i thnk so....

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