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sir r u sure about the answer.....

hi every one

my question is why the coloure of our clothes become dark when soaked in water?????

it is becoz if q (test charge) has mag. > 0 then the source charge will be displaced i.e moved due to the electric field of the test charge..and the net field due to source charge will not be correct.....so we take the mag. of the test charge as tends to zero (which is not possible....we only assume it)....ok

the question is the acc of moon with respect to earth is 0.00027m/s^{2 and}the acc of the apple falling on the earths surface is 10m/s²also assume that the radius of the moon is 1/4 of the of earth.if moon is stopped for an instant and released. it will move towards the earth then the initial acc of the moon towards the earth will be....

also i am not able to find out which eq should i use....how can i improve this difficulty

is there no effect due to velocity of river water...

i was also thinking the same but this question is on h c verma vol 1 p225 objective 2 q no 1

dear gravitational p.e at a point is equal to Gmm/r...but not R ²

iam not getting this....plz reply....plz

if V and E are the gravitational pot and field at any point. then is it possible to have V=0 & E

0...if yes give example...

e.g

V=0 & E=0 out side the field

v

0 & E=0 at the center of the sphere...

what is the difference between angular frequency and liner frequncy.....angular freq and angular velocity

also if

is angular frequncy then T should be equal to 1/

..but equal to T=2

/

... were

=

k/m.... why

dear m.mannattil gravitational p.e at a point is equal to Gmm/r not R2...i am not getting this......

plz some one reply....plz

suppose a ship enters into sea througn river....then the height of the ship above the sea level is i.e compare the height of the ship in the river and in the sea......

remain same, increases, decrease

thank u all......

i think that it is const. when we take x axis as explained above (becoz i think that x axis is taken as a convention for this measurement ) and changes with respect to y axis(as explained by dear anchitsaini above)...tc

plz explain Q no.1 on p.no.224 of verma 1,,,,it is objective type......plz

it is ok....now if it is moving with variable vel than....thanx anchitsaini....

it is objective type

if a particle is moving with constant vel. parallel to x axis then its angular momentum about origin remains?

zero or remain constant

wt is u'r ans....my was remain zero

but ans is remain constant......how?....... is this do to the initial motion of the body i.e was body initialy moving in angular motion

why can't we say that the momentum remains zero..plz reply

rates assaured