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sir r u sure about the answer.....
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hi every one my question is why the coloure of our clothes become dark when soaked in water?????
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it is becoz if q (test charge) has mag. > 0 then the source charge will be displaced i.e moved due to the electric field of the test charge..and the net field due to source charge will not be correct.....so we take the mag. of the test charge as tends to zero (which is not possible....we only assume it)....ok
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the question is the acc of moon with respect to earth is 0.00027m/s2 and the acc of the apple falling on the earths surface is 10m/s2 also assume that the radius of the moon is 1/4 of the of earth.if moon is stopped for an instant and released. it will move towards the earth then the initial acc of the moon towards the earth will be....
also i am not able to find out which eq should i use....how can i improve this difficulty
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is there no effect due to velocity of river water...
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i was also thinking the same but this question is on h c verma vol 1 p225 objective 2 q no 1
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dear gravitational p.e at a point is equal to Gmm/r...but not R 2 i am not getting this....plz reply....plz
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if V and E are the gravitational pot and field at any point. then is it possible to have V=0 & E  0...if yes give example... e.g V=0 & E=0 out side the field v 0 & E=0 at the center of the sphere... |
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what is the difference between angular frequency and liner frequncy.....angular freq and angular velocity also if  is angular frequncy then T should be equal to 1/ ..but equal to T=2  / ... were =  k/m.... why |
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dear m.mannattil gravitational p.e at a point is equal to Gmm/r not R2...i am not getting this...... plz some one reply....plz
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suppose a ship enters into sea througn river....then the height of the ship above the sea level is i.e compare the height of the ship in the river and in the sea...... remain same, increases, decrease
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thank u all...... i think that it is const. when we take x axis as explained above (becoz i think that x axis is taken as a convention for this measurement ) and changes with respect to y axis(as explained by dear anchitsaini above)...tc
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plz explain Q no.1 on p.no.224 of verma 1,,,,it is objective type......plz
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it is ok....now if it is moving with variable vel than....thanx anchitsaini....
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it is objective type if a particle is moving with constant vel. parallel to x axis then its angular momentum about origin remains? zero or remain constant wt is u'r ans....my was remain zero but ans is remain constant......how?....... is this do to the initial motion of the body i.e was body initialy moving in angular motion why can't we say that the momentum remains zero..plz reply rates assaured
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we say that work done on a body in moving it from infinity to some point in gravitational field is equal to the -ive of the change in pot. energy when body is moving slowly i.e. with no k.e ok......now if body is moved from infinity to a particular point in gravitation field such that body possess some k.e( i.e moving with some velocity)......now tell me work done by the external force is and gravitational force is....i am little confused with this..plz explain with suitable example....ok....plz.....waiting Rates assured
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thank u guys.....should i study only ncert text-book for chemistry(concepts) or any else....is there any book like h c verma in physics in chemistry.....becoz my concepts in chemistry are weak.....plz reply
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can i crack aieee with good rank in just three month's.....my physics is good....but lagging in chemistry and math..(trying to cover them),....plz reply
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