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oh sorry i forgot abt d det . :(
feynmann has explained rytly ...
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dy/dx = - tan@
=> d^2y / dx^2 = - sec^2 @ = - 1 -tan^2 @
=> ( 1 + d^2y / dx^2 ) = -tan^2 @
so i d ans shud b (d ) ie none
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chinamy is correct
d ans shud b (a )
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i wud jst like to say "i read it " ...... as u pleaded pink :)
dere is no end to dis discussion ..... its true tht dese ill practises r going on in our country bt all wat i can do now on ma part is jst a promise to ma country tht i wont become a part of such a system .........
i wont try ne such wrong way out ....... at ne stage of ma lyf
d one who desrves must get it ............. wherever or whatever d case may b .!!!!!!!
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congratssss !!!!!!!!!!
wish u all d best .......... :) :)
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well i think
for f(x) = x
f(x)= - x nd for f(x)= k where k is ne arbitrary constant
the given cond is satisfied ........
correct me if m wrong ......
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ekdum fodu ques tha ..... !!!!!!!!!
bt bt................. atleast i didnt waste tym lyk 1 hr , 1/2 hr nd so..........
bt is it true tht marx fr FREEEEEEEEEEEEEE !!!!!!!!
for those who attempted .?????????
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tht was simply mind bolwing......... tooooooooo gud !!!!!!!!
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@hsbhatt
a lil calculation mistake , for x=1, x^4 +.6x^2+25 is not 31 but 32
nd is d ans 8 ie p(1)= 8 ?
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yup i too think it shud be (b )
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ya thts true....... :) ....
gud 1
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really a gud 1.... m lucky tht i read it :)
thanxx
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congratulationsssssssss .....
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hehehhee.........gud yaar ......
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well abhi toh m d latest one ;)
:D
CONGRATSSSSSSSSS .............
well u deserve a lottttttt....... I HOPE nd I WISH u get all wat u deserve
wishing u loads of luck for tht ......... nd a heartly congratulations againnnnnnnnnnnnnn..............
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if f(x) = (ab- b^2 -2 )x + [0 ] [ pi] (cos ^4 @ + sin ^4 @ ) d@ is a decreasing function of x for all x belongs to R nd b belongs to R, b being independent of x, then
a belongs to
a) (0, root 6)
b) (- root 6 , root 6)
c) (- root 6 , 0)
d) none of these
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