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The answer of first one I suppose is "7500"

And the answer of "after another 100 years"

Although it is not possibly.

plZ rate me if I am correct.
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For finding the Area first we need to find the co-ordinates of the sides of the Rhombus

So

We get four equations of lines from ax

bx

c = 0

1) ax + bx + c = 0

2) ax + by - c = 0

3) ax - by + c = 0

4) ax - by - c = 0

To get x and y coordinates of the lines.

*First lets take eqution 1

Putting x=0 we will get

y = -c / b

Putting y=0 we will get

x=-c / a

*Similarly we will get the coordinates of the remaining 3 lines, Now the coordinates of the four lines together will be as Follows :-

1) (-c / a , -c / b)

2)( +c / a,+c / b)

3)(-c / a ,+c / b)

4)( +c / a ,-c / b)

Now plot them on graph and u will get the diagonal of the Rhombus along the

X - axis and Y-axis

The length of the diagonal will be "2c/a"

Now applying the area of Rhombus formula

and get the answer

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Dude I will answer the question definitely but

I think the question must have been that

Find the area of the Rhombus anclosed in the lines

ax

by

c = 0

This becomes $ lines that will now act as 4 Sides for the Rhombus.

Hey dude

It's not possible for me to clear ur concepts but I can suggest u

That plZ if ur concepts are not clear then stop referring

H.C.Verma as it is for solving purpose not for making understand

concepts plZ go anddefinitely try D.C.Pandey that will definitely help

You.

plZ rate me if u fetched any help from me.

Cheers !!!!!!@@@@@@!!!!!!!!!!

Sorry I by mistake explained in what direction the frictional force

acts as I did not read ur Question properly

When a person walks on the road the friction force acts in the

direction opposite to the direction of motion of the Man .

I am solving the third question

I don't have much time so it's a bit short try understanding it

We have to find the value of "f(x)" and "Q(x)"

Given:

f(n+2) = Q(n).f(n) + P(n).f(n+1)

[1! + 2! + ........+ n! + (n+1)! + (n+2)!]

=Q(n). [ 1! + 2! + ................+ n! ] + P(n). [ 1! + 2! + ........+ n! + (n+1)! ]

Now

(1! + 2! + ........+ n!) + [ (n+1)! + (n+2)! ]

=Q(n). [1! + 2! + ........+ n!] + P(n). (1! + 2! + ........+ n!) + P(n).(n+1)!

On solving we will get

P(n) + Q(n) = 1 ...................@ 1 equation

and then on substituting the value of Q(n) = 1 - P(n) in the equation we get

P(n) = n+3

Therefore

P(x) = x+3

For Q(x) substitute P(x) value in equation 1

We get

Q(x) = -(x+2)

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See Dude

Such concepts that u are asking are wrong in one subject

Where as are right in other subject

The question u have asked is right in Physica whereas wrong

In maths some areas , Explaining u why

In maths The maximum u can go upto is 360 .

But this 360 is max in case of Geometry

Whereas as far as Algebra is concerned

u can go upto infinity

I can prove it - In algebra when we draw the graph

Of Sinx then the angle varies from (- infinity) to

(+infinity) so there is a possibility of 420 degrees.

Where as in Physics when it is said in case of cicular motion that

it has travelled distance of angle 7 pi / 3 then we say that it has

Travelled distance of 420 degrees.

Hope u understand.

plZ rate me for my efforts.
Cheers !!!!!!!!!@@@@@@@@!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

Hey vinkymarali

you are wrong somewhere

I fhe has asked u that explain him then

He means to say that give him information in detail

See Ankit

In case of motion of a body linearly

the friction force acts in the direction opposite to that of the motion

as it gives resistance to the motion of the body

Anything that gives resistance acts in the opposite of the positive

Force.

Thus well undrstood

We can say that friction force follows the

Newton's third law of motion

" Every force of action has an equal and oppposite force of reaction"

Hope u understood the concept i am trying to explain

If yes plZ rate me for my efforts.
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See if u go on to take the directions in which they are going then u

may Get confused

You have to find the angle between their Velocity Vectors

For plane V is vel. making 30 deg. with north

For wind it is with V velocity and due noth that is

Along North

So the angle between them becomes 30 Degrees.

Rate me for this if u understood.

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You have given in the question

Y = Sinx Log Cosx

dy/dx = ?

I tried a lot and am not gettin the answer so

I suppose that the question must have been

y = Log _Cosx Sinx

y = Log Sinx / Log Cosx

By applying the division rule we get

For f(x) / g(x)

dy/dx = f ' (x) . g(x) - g ' (x) . f (x) / g (x)²

So We will get

dy / dx = [ Cotx.logx + tan x . log sinx ] / [ Log cosx]²

Hence proved

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plZ rate me for my efforts if I am correct.

NO NO NO DUDE

U r completely wrong who in the hell told u that the major portion comes from 11th

I know that the 11th portion is important but DUDE if u r preparing for IIT

Then u must Know that the major portion comes from 12th as per

My FIITJEE faculties and brilliant.

So as far as the preparation is concerned I revise it daily

It is enough to give 1 Hr to one of the old topics in any subject.

plZ rate me if u find it useful.

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I cannot understand that why are u all neglecting such a good question

OK don't rate me but plZ this is for ur benefit only.

Hmm..........

Let's see

I can help you

The branches are given in their order of rank

That is the ranks which if you gain will get u a chance of getting

in that particular feild in a college of ur choice

Than by going to a far away place .

1) Computer Eng. Rank :- 1 < x < 500

2)Aeronautical Eng. Rank :- 501 < x < 1250

3)Mechanical Eng / Electrical / Chemical :-

Rank :- 1250 < x < 3000

4)Civil Eng. :- 300 < x < 4500.

The above were for IIT

plZ rate me if u found it useful.

Very simple

I must say that

L (Quantization of Ang. momentum)

n

Where " n " is the orbit in which the electron is

So,

For electron in the first orbit

L = h/2

Where the value of n = 1

For second orbit nh/2

L₀ = 2n/2

L₀ = n/

Therefore the difference in the angular momentum

of successive orbits is

= n/

- n/2

=n/2

Hence solved.

Cheerssssssss!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

In this Question The Speed of the aeroplane is

lets say v = 150 m/s 30⁰ east of north

or

We can say 60⁰ north of east

And speed of the wind is 20 m/s

The speed of the wind in the direction

Of the aeroplane = 20Cos 30⁰

So

V₀= New speed of the aeroplane

V₀ = V + 20Cos 30⁰

V₀ = V + 20*

3 / 2

V₀= V + 10

3

V₀ = 150 + 17.3

= 167.3 m/s

So now the Time taken to Reach "B"

S = V₀ T

500 = 167.3 * T

T = 2.9886 s

T

3s

And

2) The angle made by the plane with the Wind is 30^0.

plZ Rate me for my efforts.

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