hiiiiiiii liku
this is typically a very different kind of question ... when u read the solution u may wonder that what is going on .. but just relax .... look at question .. the first idea that shud strike u is that what shud i use ..
well clearly no property seems to be applicable here ... but there is some hope .. there is an arbitary m in the expression to be integrated ..
this gives an idea .. we can use the reduction formula ..
so let us try our hand on it and see what happens ..
so let us call I
m =
0
sin2mx/sin2x dx = 0
(1-cos2mx)/(1-cos2x) dx
Now put 2x = t
So now Im = 1/2.0
2
(1-cosmt)/(1-cost) dt
= 1/2.2 0
(1-cosmt)/(1-cost) dt = 0
(1-cosmt)/(1-cost) dt
So now Im+1 - Im = 0
[(1-cos(m+1)t)/(1-cost) - (1-cosmt)/(1-cost)] dt = 0
(cosmt -cos(m+1)t)/(1-cost) dt = 0
(2.sint/2.sin(m+1/2)t)/(2sin2t/2) dt
so, Im+1 - Im = 0
sin(m+1/2)t/sin(t/2) dt
similarily I
m - I
m-1 =
0
sin(m-1/2)t/sin(t/2) dt
so (I
m+1 - I
m) - (I
m - I
m-1) =
0
[sin(m+1/2)t - sin(m-1/2)t]/sin(t/2)dt
= 0
[2cosmt.sin(t/2)]/sin(t/2)dt = 0
so (Im+1 - Im) - (Im - Im-1) = 0
or, 2.Im = Im+1 + Im-1
or, Im-1,Im,Im+1 are in A.P.
Now, I
m =
0
sin2mx/sin2x dx
thus, I0 = 0
sin20x/sin2x dx = 0
and,
I
1 =
0
sin21x/sin2x dx
So common difference of A.P is
and hence I
m = I
0 + n.

= n.

...
ans
I hope u got this tough one .. :)
cheers