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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 9 Jul 2007 21:46:09 IST
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taking an example of a door attached to hinges.....torque is defined over here when force is applied perpendicular to the side of the door. And it is said that when force is applied anywhere else it is not possible....(i.e is other than the 2 sides of the door) is it true?
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9 Jul 2007 22:05:22 IST
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i guess b'coz torque acts maximum wen the moment arm is more.
so it will b more effective wen applied at the 2 ends.
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9 Jul 2007 22:05:59 IST
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plz rate if right n useful
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9 Jul 2007 22:28:20 IST
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t= rxf so to reduce f & to max t r is increased ie the perpendiculad distance from the line of action of force if still its unclear ask
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9 Jul 2007 22:46:56 IST
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if it is so then what about when force is applied with an angle  on the lateral side(i.e the side opp. to the hinges)
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10 Jul 2007 00:46:07 IST
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torque=r X f
if they are perp. it will be max,othewise also it will exist....
at angle 0 it will be zero....
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Krishna Gopal Singh
B.Tech Chemical Engg
IIT Delhi 2002
Currently doing PhD from IIT Delhi |
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