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I think the method would be something like this:  1/1+sinx+sin 2x dx We have 1+sinx+sin 2x = (1-  sinx) (1- 2sinx) Hence 1/1+sinx+sin 2x = 1/(1-  sinx) (1- 2sinx) = A/(1-  sinx) + B/(1- 2sinx) Comparing LHS and RHS we get A+B = 1 and A 2+B  = 0 Eqn 2 gives on multiplying by 2. A  +B = 0 or A  +1 = A giving A = 1/1-  and B = -  /1-  Now the integral can be evaluated using the integral  dx/a+bsinx which I've unfortunately forgotten how to do.I leave it for the students to finish. PS: I should have said: "The rest is left as an exercise for the student".
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Feb 2008 23:22:34 IST
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brilliant sir! I must say, that was a real peice of beauty. far better than the method I had in mind!  Shall I post my solution or are there any other takers?
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Feb 2008 23:47:37 IST
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Excellent method sir!!!!
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Feb 2008 23:50:11 IST
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Bhattji at ur very best superb
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 Feb 2008 23:58:01 IST
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hello friends...
i did not understand the method given by hs bhatt...
can neone explain it to me.....
rates assured..
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Feb 2008 00:38:22 IST
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which part wasnt clear? the latter portion and the complex roots part? nudge me abt ur doubt.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Feb 2008 01:11:17 IST
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well 1st method is numerator me sinx add subtarct karke solve kar lo n 2nd wo partial fractions waala jisme Anumr + Bden + C waala 3rd cos^x se divide karo den den fir se 1st method waali situation aa jayegi add subtarct tan^2x got it try kar lo yaar ho jayega ni aaye toh batana wld think of ny more
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Feb 2008 02:04:24 IST
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no aankurverma, those wont work. please obtain the final answer before posting your methods.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Feb 2008 03:16:36 IST
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VARSHA KRISHNAN....
------------------------------------
IIT is always a word which rises E thru' d body. But 2 achieve it U hav 2 drain out d entire E out of the body....
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Feb 2008 17:07:26 IST
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guys , i found out another method....... check whether its correct........
I = dx ----------------------------------- 1 + sinx + sin2x
I = sec2x dx ----------------------------------------------- sec2x + tan2x + secxtanx
I = secx.secx.dx ----------------------------------------------------- (secx + tanx)2 - secxtanx
now put secx + tanx = t ..................(i)
secx(secx+tanx)dx=dt secxdx=dt/t
also secx - tanx =1/t . ......................(ii)
adding (i) and(ii)
secx = (t2 + 1)/2t and tanx = (t2 - 1)/2t
so secxtanx = (t4 - 1)/4t2
I = (t2+1)dt ----------------------------------------- t*2t*{ t2 - (t4 - 1)/4t2 }
I = 2(t2 +1)dt ----------------------- 3t4 + 1 after which i think you can solve.......................
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Feb 2008 17:25:11 IST
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nice one ramkumar_novemeber! In fact, the first time I tried this problem I tried to solve through your line of thinking. I tried so many substitutions, but didnt think of secx - tanx = 1/t. Simple but elegant!
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Feb 2008 17:26:58 IST
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Here is a more detailed form of hsbhatt sir's solution. Do nudge me if you are still finding difficulties. is a quadratic in Sin{x}. Solving we get,  . The expression on the right represents the cube roots of unity represented by 1,  and  . Hence,  Now we employ method of partial fractions to obtain, Compare the coefficients to get, and  . Solve, u'll get  and  . So the integral now becomes, Substitute  . So that  and  .  . The above two integrals are of standard form and can be solved quite easily!
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
http://iit-redefined.theforum.name/index.php
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 13 Feb 2008 17:35:01 IST
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Thanks to all who replied. Here is my solution: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Then Let  then Now let  and Then:  Now just substitute back and you're done!
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
JEE and OLYMPIA INFINATUM
http://iit-redefined.theforum.name/index.php
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 21 Feb 2008 15:12:02 IST
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