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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:10:05 IST
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1.the length of a seconds pendulum on the earth where g is 9.8 m/sec^2 is 1m.the length of a seconds pendulum on a planet where g=4.9 m/sec^2 will be 1.1m 2.2m 3.0.5m 4.0.25m ans. with reason
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:14:07 IST
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" Always remember money isn't everything but make sure you have made a lot of it before talking such nonsense!"
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:18:41 IST
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no.............the ans is 3 opt............
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:19:56 IST
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really sorrry ...stupid mistake.. its 1 m approx on earth...and l/g is const g=g/2 so l=L/2 =1/2=0.5 m
sorry again
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:20:15 IST
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akhil ur logic is rite.l/g is const so as g becomes g/2 l will become l/2 pls do not rate
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:27:23 IST
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i have a doubt can anyone justify why time period of oscillation should be constant everywhere??? and what is the logical reason which you can account for change in length in some where with diff acc due to gravity???i dont understand this part!!!
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:32:54 IST
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in my book the ans is given as time period of second pendulum is =2 sec & then l1/g1=l2/g2 & then getting that.....i don't know fron where they got that 2 sec..........really still i m not clear too
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:34:40 IST
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T remains same in both the cases therefore T = root L/g = root 1/9.8 ----------------------(1) T' = root L'/g' = root L'/4.9---------------------(2) (1) = (2) root1/9.8 = root L'/4.9 1/9.8 = L' / 4.9 L' = 1/2 = 0.5m T= 2 * 3.14 1/9.8 = 2 * 3.14 *0.319 = 2.006 which is approximately 2
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:34:57 IST
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its not tht time period SHOULD be constant..u r basically making a pendulum of T=2 sec on tne particular planet...now if such a pendulum on earth needed a length l on earth for T=2..then length of it shud be l/2 on the planet
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:35:15 IST
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time period of seconds period IS 2 seconds..
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:37:06 IST
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arey,that 2 sec is there as a second's pendulum is 1 which has time period=2s.......so concept is that on both the planets its T is 2s and so the sol.n given abv.........
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:37:07 IST
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akhil if u were replyin to me..then i dun think uve understood my pt
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:40:02 IST
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no mate i wasnt :) see the time difference...18 sec btween our replies.. ur brain is computer001 not mine :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:41:32 IST
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he he...nice 1 :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Mar 2008 21:43:54 IST
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@ arpitsr i think i got my ans 4 my doubt i wanted to know from where we r getting that 2 sec time period...according to u in every second's pendulum it will be 2........... ok.... can u tell me why so ..or any 1 else..can help me....plz.....
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