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Ask iit jee aieee pet cbse icse state board community Community Discussion Question: limits doubt2
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asish (333)

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if x is a real no. in [0,1],then the value of f(x)=[ m][infinity ] [ n][infinity ] {1+cos2m (n!pi x)}is given by(even see rationality of x)
pls reply with explanation
    
asish (333)

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pls reply
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anandghegde (1712)

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I know only this
The Dirichlet function can be written analytically as  D(x)=lim_(m->infty)lim_(n->infty)cos^(2n)(m!pix).

now I'm trying to solve your problem using this. Lemme see if I can do it.



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anandghegde (1712)

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can x be zero?

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anandghegde (1712)

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\cos^{2m} (n!\pi x) =[\cos^2 (n!\pi x) ]^m

we know that 0 \le \cos^2 (n!\pi x)  \le 1

case 1: \cos^2 (n!\pi x)= 1

implies n!\pi x = k\pi

or x= \frac{k}{n!} = rational

therefore when x is rational, f(x) = 2





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I'll try to continue wait......

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case 2: 0 < cos^2 (n!pi x) < 1

\displatstyle \lim_{m\to\infty} \lim_{n\to\infty}\cos^{2m} (n!\pi x) =0

here x is irrational.
Hence f(x) = 1 when x is irrational.

Now when cos^2 (n!pi x) =0, this case is confusing me......ask experts like koni, elasti, bhatsir....

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konichiwa2x (2373)

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Case 1:

Limit

as when

Case 2:

Limit

 

, where is an integer.

which is a rational number.

For the other case, when

 




'x' is irrational.

Hence, Limit = 2 when 'x' is rational.
Limit = 1 when 'x' is irrational.

Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm

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anandghegde (1712)

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\text{ But when x is a rational number of the form }\frac{(2k+1) }{2n!}\text{ wont f(x) be equal to 1}

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asish (333)

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thanx koni
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konichiwa2x (2373)

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You mean to say  ? I think its quite safe to assume 'x' is not dependant on 'n' .

Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm

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