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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 14:15:26 IST
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isnt tht obvious?? i mean when n-> inf no diff bet n and n+1.. but threr is a prob...wat if both r infinity?? then v have inf-inf which is indeterminate :\
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Nitwit Blubber Odment Tweak
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 14:28:54 IST
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Is the answer -1 or 1? Almost done, but it's troublesome
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* Gaurav Ragtah ( aka Artemis Fowl )
* Agent 'G' [sniper] - SD-6 (Alliance of Twelve)
* Your friendly neighborhood spideyunlimited |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 26 Mar 2008 13:25:00 IST
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Answer is 1/e.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 09:15:05 IST
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For the 4th question, edited (made a horrible mistake) For the 5th one, By Stirling's formula  is approximately equal to  , so it looks like  should be approximately  . But this looks like a very tricky thing to establish with a rigorous proof.. What is the source of the problem?
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 09:17:28 IST
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nice one :) i didnt know sterling's apprx though ive seen it being used before. There must be another way out though
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 09:20:22 IST
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its pretty simple. it states that so that is approximately n/e.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 09:25:20 IST
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yeah this is where i had seen it :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 10:37:02 IST
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rohit i thot rok said 4th 1 is not 0??? thts wat even i got n u guessed
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Nitwit Blubber Odment Tweak
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 10:53:56 IST
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yes its 1/e as rock said n koni proved :) n even i had the same method as u had man but that apprx isnt clearly valid as i though tbefore
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 11:14:10 IST
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read proprerly Koni says 1/e for 5th question and 0 for 4th q... i said 0 for 4th q only...but rok said thts wrong...
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 11:17:38 IST
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think he's mixed up the question numbers thats all bcos what he said as the 5th in reality seems to be the 4th :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 11:28:31 IST
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from where do you people get the formula for sterling's approximation and all that??
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"I a universe of atoms.......an atom in the universe" |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 11:42:28 IST
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i have already shown one plausible source Well neway, the rest can be answered by koni himself 
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 15:46:22 IST
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i happened to come across this limit somewhere (maybe in one of my parent's books) . My proffessor told me about sterling's approximation and used it to prove the limit.
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Guide to latex:
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/community-shelf-a-guide-to-latex-48056.htm
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 28 Mar 2008 15:47:35 IST
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