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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 24 Mar 2008 23:55:35 IST
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(LOG (X2+1)- LOG(X))(1/1+X2) dx
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 00:07:02 IST
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edited..
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Na pine ka shouk tha na pilane ka shonk tha. Hume to sirf NAZREIN milane ka shonk tha. Par kya karen hum nazre hi unse mila baithe jinhe nazron se PILANE ka shonk tha. |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 01:48:29 IST
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i tried using parts.
log(x^2+1/x)(1/x^2+1)dx log(x^2+1/x)*tan-1x- tan-1x*x^2-1/(x^2+1 *x) dx now make the substitution x =tan y simplify n uget
y[2coty-cosecysecy]dy y coty and ysecycosecy r not simple integrals. but they r evaluable.
..ill try for oder methods..
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 01:59:57 IST
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integral{ log((x^2+1)/x)*1/1+x^2 dx} x=tany integral{ log{sec^2ycoty}dy = -1*integral{log(sinycosy)}dy so u can simplify tht 2 integral log{sint}dt + some direct stuff log(sint)dt is direct with definite...r u sure its indefinite??
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Nitwit Blubber Odment Tweak
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 09:16:03 IST
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yes its indefinite!!!!@@!!!!!
@ elastiboysai (2007) ur sol sems to be correct!! but i don't think a question from a cbse buk will be so lenghty for 4mm
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Stay Hungry. Stay Foolish. |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 16:01:35 IST
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gurucharan, are u sure u got this frm the cbse text book? this doesn seem simple, konichiwa also tried it n said he 2 got somthin similiar to wat i have got. cn u chek up ur qn plz?
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 16:03:24 IST
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elasti, mine?? n how do u integrate log(sinx) indef... i dunno its not comin easily
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Nitwit Blubber Odment Tweak
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 16:19:03 IST
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ur methods also rt.. and logsinxdx cant be evaluated easily using parts i hav tried it b4 but in vain.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 19:47:51 IST
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Now that u hv changed it.. [0 ] [infinity ] log(x^2+1)/x *1/x^2+1 dx now substitute x=tan a [0 ] [pi/2 ]log(sec^2a/tana)da [0 ] [pi/2 ]log(1/sina)+log(1/cosa) da shud be pi *log2 using the fact that [0 ] [pi/2 ]logsina da= -pi/2 *log2
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 23:03:48 IST
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but i hav not changed the question!!! this is question with limits is given on same page of buk!!
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 23:44:10 IST
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hey i meant u changed the qn from definite to indefinite the integral is same anyways
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