let us denote x-1 by y
then the eqn becomes
e^( y ) +y -1 = 0
let us denote the LHS by f(y )
now f'( y ) = e^y + 1 >= 0 for all y
so it is an increasing fn
So it may have atmost one zero .......................... ( 1 )
Agian we see that f ( - inf ) = -inf and f( inf ) = inf
so f( y ) has at least one zero for real y .................. ( 2 )
Then from ( 1 ) & ( 2 ) it follows that f( y ) = 0 has exactly one soln .