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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 10 Apr 2008 16:03:08 IST
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0 to pie/2 sinx kipower 8 ans is 105pie/32(4!) plz make it fst
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10 Apr 2008 16:22:49 IST
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just apply walli's theorem
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10 Apr 2008 16:23:33 IST
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walli's what
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Vegeta: While I was with you guys, I became more human. I didn't like that. I even have a family and started to like living on earth.
Vegeta: Don't remind me. I'm mad enough to hurt somebody and pounding you just might be the therapy I need.
Vegeta: You can take control of my mind and my body, but there is one thing a Saiyan always keep... his PRIDE!
[Piccolo and Vegeta sit back to back on a tiny island]
Piccolo: Is it over?
Vegeta: Not until the fish jumps.
[a fish jumps out of the water]
Vegeta: It's over.
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10 Apr 2008 17:28:01 IST
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Wallis formulae :
0 pi/2 sinnx = 0 pi/2 cosnx = [1.3.5.......................(n-1)]/[2.4.6........................(n) if n is even and >=2
0pi/2 sinnx = 0pi/2 cosnx = [2.4.6........................(n-1)]/[3.5.7.........................(n)] if n is odd and >=3
For the given question (3.5.7/2.4.6.8)pi/2 = 105pi/32(4!)
~Cheerio!!!
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Talk less work more!! {To be simplistic and 2 gain respect}
Eat less work more!!! {To "build" ur body}
Work less Do more!!! {2 make ur life big}
don't get scared !!!
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10 Apr 2008 17:29:16 IST
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or alternatively u can also proceed by the beta gamma function ....
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_________________________
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10 Apr 2008 17:42:59 IST
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what
i dont understand anything of u guys
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10 Apr 2008 17:53:58 IST
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what is walli's theorum can anyone explain
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10 Apr 2008 18:38:13 IST
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Use gamma function!!! Simple sum.
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Will nip in at times to solve problems :)
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10 Apr 2008 18:42:59 IST
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Simple buddy!!!
Normally when u integrate u use reduction formulae
cosnx = cosn-1xsinx/n + (n-1)In-2/n
Now when you substitute the limit as pi/2 the first term in this becomes zero!!
Then u go on expanding the integral all the first ones become zero and in the second part, the chain goes as (n-1/n)(n-3/n-2).............. and finally u'll be left with either sinx or cosx or nothing depending on the power u choose so that u'll get pi/2 or 1 at last.
I think now u could appreciate the formulae!!!
~Cheerio!!!
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10 Apr 2008 22:29:52 IST
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i think i ve da best ans for ur ques its a shortcut 0 to pie / 2 ki limits hai so dis shortcut is applicable on sin (ki power n) x as well as for cos ( ki power n) x sin ^ 8 x = ( 7 . 5 . 3 .1 / 8 . 6 . 4 . 2 . )* pie / 2 since da power is even ie. 8 so v'll multiply by pie / 2 & iff power of sin x is odd then we ll not multiply by pie/ 2 its a short cut applicable only if limits r b/w 0 to pie / 2
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