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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 12 May 2008 20:47:02 IST
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Why  is 0 and  is 1?
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12 May 2008 20:59:36 IST
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As h tends to 0+,-1/h tends to -infinity and e-infinity tends to 0 and Hence the second limit is 1.Similarly,as h tends to 0-,-1/h tends to +infinity and so is e-1/h.Hence the first limit is 0.
A similar concept was used in another problem posted by u.
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MAKING A MISTAKE IS HUMAN BUT REPEATING IT IS IDIOTIC. |
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12 May 2008 21:09:29 IST
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cos in first one, the e term will tend to infinity and in second one it will tend to 0.
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- Gaurav Ragtah (spideyunlimited)
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13 May 2008 16:43:43 IST
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hey man jab h 0-to e ke power mein infinity aayega aur 1/infinity is 0
but jab h is 0+ toh e ke power mein -infinity aayega which means 1/(e)infinity which is zero.
hope u got it.......
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