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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 14 May 2008 17:05:53 IST
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A cylinder of radius R is spinned and then placed on an incline having coefficient of friction u = tan@ ( @is the
angle of incline). The cylinder contiues to spin without faling for time
a) rw / 3gsin@
b) rw / 2gsin@
c) rw / gsin@
d) 2rw / gsin@
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 14 May 2008 17:12:55 IST
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in which direction does it move .
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 14 May 2008 19:21:17 IST
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For this problem, try to understand what is happening. Here the sphere will roll back only if the reverse spin given to it becomes zero. It will become zero only if there is a torque which brings about the angular retardation.
Let us consider the axis of rotation at the point of contact:
Torque equation is : .
Using basic kinematics equation, we have : 0 = 
Which gives .
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Will nip in at times to solve problems :)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 14 May 2008 20:00:43 IST
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ya the answer is rw/2gsin
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 14 May 2008 20:04:45 IST
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another soln. is dat umgcos@=mgsin@.
so by eqn. of motion find wen vel. of pt. of contact is zero and den it will turn and go up due 2 friction.
rate dis
initial statement was derived by u=tan@
rate dis full
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 14 May 2008 20:05:49 IST
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ans is (B)
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 May 2008 16:04:27 IST
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am i correct --------
firstly the friction acts upward along the plane.
there is no linear motion during its reverse spin since, friction (upward along the plane) =
mgsin@ = downward force along the plane = mgsin@ ). -------------------------( 1 )
when angular velocity becomes zero, the friction which is acting upward along the plane reduces in magnitude
so that the cylinder starts coming downward. i.e, if friction is still mgsin@ ( maximum friction ) then from ( 1 ) it
can not move downward ( since the forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction).
this is what i have undersood. please i want to confirm weather i am correct or not...........
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 May 2008 19:31:02 IST
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hello any one please answer to my above post................
im waiting for the reply.................
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 May 2008 19:53:00 IST
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any one please...............i am waiting for the reply............
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 17 May 2008 22:46:28 IST
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(b)
Assuming the initial spin to be clockwise.
The inital slip of the cylinder is down the plane. So friction acts up at its full magnitude 
Now, as 
Hence the cylinder had no acceleration. So the CM doesn't develop any velocity and so the cylinder doesn't move.

So,

The spinning stops at 
After this the cylinder moves down
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