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Himanshu346 (0)

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limit             -(cot x - 1/x)





x tends to 0

    
nunoxic (1469)

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Simplify it becomes
tan x - 1 / x^2

Am Not Sure But Then The Answer Should Be 0



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Himanshu346 (0)

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Not understanding please explain

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nunoxic (1469)

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But Is 0 Correct ?

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ssbrightstar1 (5)

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No , i dont know  answer but please explain yaaaaaaaaaaar

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animal (615)

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yes the answer is 0


see it becomes cos x/sin x-1/x


on further solving we get


(cosx-1)/x while x tends to 0 and it is always =0


hope u got it....

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nunoxic (1469)

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Chill :)

See,
-(cot x - 1)/x
= 1 - cot x / x
= 1 - 1/tan x /x
= tan x - 1 / x tan x
Since X > 0
tan x = x
= tan x - 1 / x^2
Now If U Use McLaurin Series
tan x = 1 + x! / 1 + x^3 / 3! .....
there is no term of x^2
Hence Answer Should be 0

Alternately
d/dx (tan x) = sec^2 x
d/dx (sec^2 x) = 2 sec x sec x tan x

Thus by Using L'Hospital
= 2 sec^2 x tan x / 2 x
= sec ^2 x
= 0

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nunoxic (1469)

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Sorry In the Last Part There Is Mistake :

Thus by Using L'Hospital
= 2 sec^2 x tan x / 2 x
= sec ^2 x
= 0

It Should Be
= 2 sec^2 x tan x / 2
= sec^2 x tan x
= 0

Sometimes One Dream Is Enough To Light Up The Entire October Sky....

First Year Mechanical Engineering
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nunknown91 (66)

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 =


 


 =


 =


 = 0


<TABLE CELLSPACING="1" CELLPADDING="1" BORDER="0">
<TR><TD>


<DIV ALIGN="right">Glitter Graphics</DIV></TD></TR></TABLE>
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