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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 2 Jun 2008 21:39:17 IST
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assertion and reasoning::
statement 1- if f(x)= ,then rolle's theoram applies for f(x) in [1,3]
statemaent 2- lagrange's mean value theoram is applicable to f(x)= in any inteval.
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 2 Jun 2008 21:52:15 IST
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its not continious in the closed interval [ 1 3] but satisfies f(a) = f(b) hence rolles theroem not applicable - state ment 1
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 2 Jun 2008 22:45:40 IST
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I think the function is continuous in [1,3] and derivable in (1,3) and f(1)=f(3).So,Rolle's theorem holds.Robot,Can u explain why it isn't continuous in [1,3].
Similarly,LMVT holds for f(x) in any interval as it is continuous and derivable on R.So,the answer is that both are true,but R is not correct explanation of A.
[edited]
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MAKING A MISTAKE IS HUMAN BUT REPEATING IT IS IDIOTIC. |
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 2 Jun 2008 22:56:35 IST
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f(x) is continuous [1,3] and derivable in (1,3) and f(1)=f(3).So,Rolle's theorem holds.
at the same time, lagrange's mean value theoram is applicable to f(x) in any inteval.
but statement 2 is in no case proper explanation for statement 1
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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 3 Jun 2008 09:13:04 IST
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iam sorry ,small mistake in calculation continuity holds ...
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