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Ask iit jee aieee pet cbse icse state board community Community Discussion Question: Definite Integral
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anshul_2009 (45)

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In this question if we simplify the term we get f(x)=root 2. cosx


then here we have to take the period of cosx as 2pi  or pi( if we take Mod(cosx)


Why we have to take mod(cosx) as f(x), why not only cosx?


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spideyunlimited (4221)

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because a square root can only give a positive quantity, that's why

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- Gaurav Ragtah (spideyunlimited)
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