|
|
|
|
|
| Author |
Message |
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 6 Sep 2008 16:47:34 IST
|
|
|
x,y axis are perpendicular to each other,then why thier multiplication of slope is not equal to -1???
|
|
|
|
6 Sep 2008 16:50:02 IST
|
|
|
this is because slope of x axis is 0 and slope of y approaches infinity
0 multiplied by a number approaching to infinity is not defined
|
this reply: 5 points
(with 1 
in 1 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
6 Sep 2008 18:08:16 IST
|
|
|
http://www.goiit.com/posts/list/trignometry-trigonometry-49490.htm#249256
see the derivation of that comes from that formula that i had posted there and the reason is also given..there..
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
6 Sep 2008 18:42:53 IST
|
|
|
Dear
the condition is valid only when the slopes have some defined values.
but in this case since slope of y axis is undefined so the condition is not valid for this case and all other cases where the lines are parellel to y axis e.g. x=2 or so on........
so flaringstorm is right.
|
this reply: 0 points
(with 0
in 0 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
Moderation Team
![[Up]](/templates/default/images/icon_up.gif "[Up]"){kind=icon}
