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him26.89 (207)

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Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 31  [57 rates]

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total posts: 179    
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i think the base is x here.
so,here is the ans
 
qun can be written as 
[logelnx]/lnx
now derivative
[(1/lnx)(1/x) - (1/x)(loglnx)]/(lnx)2
putting x=e
lnx=1  log1=0
:. we get ans 1/e
 this reply: 17 points  (with Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 4 votes )   [?]
 
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