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if the question has (x^2+1)(x-3)(x+4)>0
then do we put the coefficient x^2 as 1 and move on with th
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(x2+1)(x-3)(x+4) > 0
Since x2 + 1 > 0, it can be divided on both the sides without changing inequality sign
(x-3)(x+4) > 0
Now break the regions in (-infinity, -4) ; (-4,3) U (3,infinity) and analyze the expression
you will find x belongs to (-infinity, -4) U (3,infinity)
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Bipin Kumar Dubey Chemical Dept. IIT Kharagpur |
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