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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 14 Nov 2007 17:34:48 IST
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lim x->1 (1-x) tan(pi x/2)
since it is in d form 0 * infinity
hence ny converting it into 0/0 form we can use l'hospitals rule
lim x->1 (1-x)/ cot(pi x/2)
differentiating
lim x->1 1/cosec^2 (pix/2) * pix/2
= 2/pi
hope dis is d correct sol..nd it helps u out
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there is no right way 2 do something wrong !!!!!!!! |
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