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This is a usual mistake. I've seen many people ( including some on this site commit this mistake. I hope this will make it clear)
As known by all, friction acts to prevent relative motion between two bodies.
This doesn't imply that if there's no motion, there is no friction.
Imagine this, when you push a block on a rough surface, there is no motion initially, but still friction acts
Some people feel that since there's no motion (relative) that implies there is no friction.
Then,
Why do we say that friction acts?[ Even though there is no relative motion]
It is because there 's a tendency of relative motion. Had there been no friction, the body would have moved.
I guess it is clearer now. At least, I have succeeded in bringing the mistake under light.
Nudge me more explanation if reqd.
PS : rate me if I'm correct
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Moderation Team
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