Nice deduction...I didnt think of it earlier...

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But in the place I read the question when I posted it, it said pull,not power is constant...

So pull= M*a would imply constant acceleration..

Taking that as the basis,I proceeded with the rest of the problem.

That being the question,what I did would be correct and you get Ml/(M-m)..

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Then again,as you pointed out,the same principle cant be applied here,which falsifies that solution..

So I'm unable to understand how the answer remains the same in both cases..

someone please explain!!

@Elessar sir, your post is slightly unclear as many symbols cant be seen..please check it!

Thanks!:-)