|
|
|
|
|
| Author |
Message |
![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 15 Jan 2008 08:52:42 IST
Accepted Answer [?]
|
|
|
Method 1, w = 1 - iz / z - i lwl = 1 l z - i l = l(1 - iz)l = lz +1l
So z lies on the right bisector of line joining points 0 + i and 0 - i Hence z lies on real axis.
Method 2, lwl = 1 l1 - izl/lz - il = 1 So l1 - izll^2 = lz - il^2
(1 - iz)(1 + izbar) = (z - i)(z bar + i)
Let bar be represented by '
Now (iz)' = -iz'
1 - iz + (iz)' +zz' = zz' + iz - iz' + 1
2 i ( z - z') = 0 Hence 2i (2iy) = 0 and y = 0..........the equatn of real axis
Hope you got it.Please nudge if not clear.Rate if satisfied.
|
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________
From J.R.R. Tolkien's 'The Lord of the Rings':
All that is gold does not glitter
Not all who wander are lost
The old that is strong does not wither,
Deep roots are not reached by frost.
From ashes a fire shall be woken
From shadows a light shall spring
Renewed shall be blade that's broken
The crown less again shall be king. |
this reply: 5 points
(with 1 
in 1 votes ) [?]
|
|
You have to be logged on to rate
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|
|