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sboosy (3063)

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Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 539  [723 rates]

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f(x)=x+sinx
differentiating
we get 1+cosx
for a fn to have an inverse it should be strictly increasing or decreasing.
1+cosx>0
implies cosx>-1
since u didnt mention any restriction on interval
cosx can take -1 value as we all know.
 
so it is not always strictly increasing.
 
so no inverse exists
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