Giving u a simpler soln .
Let g'( cosx ) = f ( cos x) ( It can always be written )
so we have ,
[0 ]
[ 2pi] f ( cos x ) dx = g ( cos ( 2pi ) ) - g ( cos ( 0 )) = 0 ...................(1 )
Now let I = given integral
change x to 2 pi - x. so the integral becomes
I =
[ 0]
[2pi ] 2pi f ( cos x ) dx - I
( since f( cos ( 2pi -x ) )= f ( cos x ) )
So we get I = pi
f ( cos x ) dx = 0 ( by 1 )