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[Post New]28 Jan 2008 21:46:26 IST
    Subject: Re:witch of agnesia
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akhil_o (2704)

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Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 434  [701 rates]
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Punnima is spot on!
second function is always 0 in (0,1]
so we just find area of first function
x=1/(1+y2)
integrating from limits 0 to infinity
we get tan-1y from 0 to infinity
so tan-1 infinty -tan-10
= pi/2 - 0
= pi/2
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