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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 4 Feb 2008 12:49:52 IST
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by definition in ray&jonson,e=KE(f)/KE(i) only when e=1;now if KE(f)=KE(i),then e has to be equal to one
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rate me if i'm right and nudge me if its wrong |
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