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hsbhatt (5000)

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Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 942  [1087 rates]

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1. The basic thing is to establish that the sequence has a limit.
 
Let cosn1 represent the cosine function applied n times on the number 1
 
Now 1>cos(cos(1))
 
i.e. 1>cos21.
Hence,
 cos31>cos11 (as cos is a decreasing function in (0,pi)
cos21>cos41
cos51>cos31 and so on
 
So, you get that the sequence cos1, cos31, cos51,... is an increasing sequence, while the sequence cos21, cos41, cos61,... is a decreasing sequence. The sequences are bounded and hence the sequences converge.
 
Suppose they converge to different limits l1 and l2.
 
Then l1 and l2. are solutions to the equation x = cos(cos(x)) in the interval (0,1)
 
Let f(x) = x-cos(cos(x)).
f'(x) = 1-sin(sin(x)).sin(x)>0.i.e. it is a strictly increasing function. You can prove that it has a solution in (0,1). So that solution is unique.
 
Hence l1 = l2.
 
The limit is the solution to x = cosx, which comes to around 0.73.
 

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