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anchitsaini (4352)

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Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 796  [982 rates]

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i had learnt of this proof somewhere(most probably over the internet)--

lets start with  proof for sum of divisors of pk where p is a prime number

sum of its divisors should be (pk+1)/ (p-1)

proof--
divisors of pk =  1,p,p2, ......pk
hence sum of divisors is a GP =(pk+1-1) / (p-1)


now if a number can be represented as

n = p1r1 . ...... pkrk

hence sum of its divisors would be --
        
          ( p1r1+1 - 1)/ (p1-1) ... ......( pkrk+1 - 1) / (pk-1)

Impossible To be Impossible is Impossible
 this reply: 10 points  (with Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.   in 2 votes )   [?]
 
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