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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 23 Mar 2008 01:50:03 IST
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So we have the inst. acc. as - v2 /r And we all know chain rule !! So we can write V=dS/dt=dS/dV*dV/dt ---------------------------(1)
by madmax , refer earlier post Rearranging we get the eqn they have given which is dv/dt=v(dV/dS)
I'll just continue with eqn (1) Take dv on the other side ,substitute dV/dt= v2/r and rearrange the eqn to get
(1/V)dV=(- /r)dS
The question is for one revolution so integrate S from 0 to 2 r and dV from Vo to V........where Vo is init vel
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