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![[Post New]](/templates/default/images/icon_minipost_new.gif) 25 Mar 2008 09:37:24 IST
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Can't we proceed using binomial theorem for the later part
(1 - x) ^ n = C0 - C1x + C2 x^2 - C3 x^3 ......+(-1)^n x^n so we can write it like,
1 - (1-x)^n / x = C1 - C2 x^2 + C3 x^3 - ...+( -1)Cn x^n-1
or [0] [1] 1 - (1- x)^n / 1 - (1-x) = [ C1x + C2 x^2/2 - C3 x^3/3 ......+(-1)^n x^n/n ]
wont this give the required value for the later part?
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