IIT JEE , AIEEE Forum - Physics , Mechanics

akshay.khare91

Yes, in case of pure rolling the force of friction acts
Let us consider a example
IF a body is rolled and placed on a surface with friction and also we have given
it a velocity then if V> then friction force acts in backward direction to
provide it a torque and increases it angular velocity so that v=r.
And if V< then friction force acts in forward direction to reduce angular velocity
so that again v= r...

and if we are performing the above experiment on a inclined plane so that
Mg has two components Mgsin and Mgcos .Since Mgcos is balanced
by normal reaction and it has no torque. Also Mgsin has no torque
therefore there is only frictional force which will provide a torque and
will cause pure rolling v=r

however work done by frictional force is zero

I DONOT FOLLOW THE RULES I MAKE THEM TO FOLLOW ME.

this reply: 7 points (with 1 Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer.

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