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ramkumar_november (1268)

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Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 230  [289 rates]

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l =  \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}}{m.n}


According to stirling's approximation,


(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}=\frac{n}{e}


\frac{(n!)^{\frac{1}{n}}}{n}=\frac{1}{e}


so the limit becomes


l =  \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{1}{e.m}


l =  (e.m)^{-1}


 

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