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allamraju (3415)

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Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 605  [800 rates]

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Let us denote @=a and $=b then a+b=m and ab=n where m,n are +ve integers.

We have to prove a,b are integers[ma]+[mb] is a perfect square which involves two parts.

(i)a,b[ma]+[mb]=[a2+ab]+[b2+ab]

Now,Both a2+ab and b2+ab are integers only,so,it becomes,

[ma]+[mb]=a2+2ab+b2=(a+b)2 which is a perfect square.

Now,let us prove the CONVERSE.

(ii)[a2+ab]+[b2+ab] is a perfect square

But a2+ab-1<[a2+ab]a2+ab and

b2+ab-1<[b2+ab]b2+ab

So,(a+b)2-2<[a2+ab]+[b2+ab](a+b)2

Since a+b=m is an integer,m2 and m2-2 are both integers.

Now,we observe that if p,q are +ve distinct integers then p2-q2 is always greater than 2.So,there lies no integer which is a perfect square between m2 and m2-2.But for [a2+ab]+[b2+ab] to be a perfect square,the equality holds in the above relation.

i.e;[a2+ab]+[b2+ab]=(a+b)2

[a2+ab] and [b2+ab] are both integers.

a(a+b)a as (a+b)=m is an integer.Similarly,we have,b

Hence proved.

MAKING A MISTAKE IS HUMAN BUT REPEATING IT IS IDIOTIC.
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