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allamraju (3422)

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Olaaa!! Perrrfect answer. 606  [802 rates]

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f(x)+f(1/x)=f(x)f(1/x)[f(x)-1][f(1/x)-1]=1



 


Let f(x)-1=g(x) then g(x).g(1/x)=1.



 


If g(x) is a constant function k then k2=1 which gives f(x)=0 or f(x)=2.



 


Let g(x)=a0+a1x+a2x2+...+anxn ,a nth degree polynomial(an0) then



 


g(1/x)=a0+a1/x+a2/x2+...+an/xn



 


g(x).g(1/x)=1coeff. of xn=a0an=0a0=0.



 


So,g(x)=x[a1+....+anxn-1].Again g(x).g(1/x)=1 gives a1an=0a1=0



 


If we proceed like this,we get,a0=a1=a2=...=an-1=0.



 


So,g(x)=anxn where an2=1 or an=1.



 


Hence,f(x) can be the following



 


f(x)=0 or f(x)=2 or f(x)=1xn.

MAKING A MISTAKE IS HUMAN BUT REPEATING IT IS IDIOTIC.
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