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puneet (2841)

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hiiiiiiii liku
 
this is typically a very different kind of question ... when u read the solution u may wonder that what is going on .. but just relax .... look at question .. the first idea that shud strike u is that what shud i use ..
 
well clearly no property seems to be applicable here ... but there is some hope ..  there is an arbitary m in the expression to be integrated ..
 
this gives an idea .. we can use the reduction formula ..
 
so let us try our hand on it and see what happens ..
 
so let us call Im = 0  sin2mx/sin2x dx
                        = 0  (1-cos2mx)/(1-cos2x) dx
 
Now put 2x = t
 
So now Im = 1/2.0 2 (1-cosmt)/(1-cost) dt
 
                = 1/2.2 0  (1-cosmt)/(1-cost) dt
                = 0  (1-cosmt)/(1-cost) dt
 
So now Im+1 - Im  =  0  [(1-cos(m+1)t)/(1-cost) - (1-cosmt)/(1-cost)] dt
                          =  0  (cosmt -cos(m+1)t)/(1-cost) dt
                          = 0   (2.sint/2.sin(m+1/2)t)/(2sin2t/2) dt 
 
so,  Im+1 - I       = 0   sin(m+1/2)t/sin(t/2) dt 
 
similarily Im - Im-1        = 0   sin(m-1/2)t/sin(t/2) dt 
 
so (Im+1 - Im) - (Im - Im-1) = 0  [sin(m+1/2)t - sin(m-1/2)t]/sin(t/2)dt
 
                                    = 0  [2cosmt.sin(t/2)]/sin(t/2)dt 
                                    = 0   
so (Im+1 - Im) - (Im - Im-1) = 0
or, 2.Im = Im+1 + Im-1
or, Im-1,Im,Im+1 are in A.P.
 
Now, Im = 0  sin2mx/sin2x dx
 
thus, I0 = 0  sin20x/sin2x dx
               = 0
 
and,  I1 = 0  sin21x/sin2x dx   
               = 0  dx =        
                                                
So common difference of A.P is  
 
and hence Im = I0 + n.
                    = n.       ... ans
 
I hope u got this tough one .. :)
 
cheers

Puneet Agrawal IIT Delhi
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