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puneet (2841)

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hiiiii liku
u have asked some really tough ones ...... after a long time i had to use do much brain .... :) never mind, take a salute from me and let us see how to solve it ..
 
Now we have I =  0/2 1+2cosx/(2+cosx)2 dx 
 
now i will use a simple manipulation .. how i reached it might be a question that u have ... well just observe the 2 in denominator .. that 2 suggests this manipulation shud be made ...
 
I =  0/2  1+2cosx/(2+cosx)2 dx
 = 0/2 [(cos2x + sin2x) + 2cosx]/(2+cosx)2 dx
 
 =  0/2 [(cosx(cosx +  2) + sin2x)]/(2+cosx)2 dx
 = 0/2 cosx/(2+cosx) dx +  0/2 sin2x/(2+cosx)2 dx
 
= I1 + I2           ..  (say)
 
Now I1  = 0/2 cosx/(2+cosx) dx  
           = [sinx/(2+cosx)]0/2   0/2 sinx.[sinx/(2+cosx)2] dx (using integration by parts)
 
          = [sinx/(2+cosx)]0/2  - I2
 
so, we get I1 + I2  =  [sinx/(2+cosx)]0/2 
or, I = [sinx/(2+cosx)]0/2 
         = 1/2 - 0
       = 1/2
 
Thus 0/2 1+2cosx/(2+cosx)2 dx = 1/2 ans
 
cheers
 

Puneet Agrawal IIT Delhi
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